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Kathryn A. (
kerravonsen
) wrote
in
watervole
2009-06-23 06:58 am (UTC)
no subject
Maybe it's a US/UK accent thing?
Yes, I think that explains it. Because the difference between "oral" and "aural" in some accents is so slight as to almost not be a difference.
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no subject
Yes, I think that explains it. Because the difference between "oral" and "aural" in some accents is so slight as to almost not be a difference.